Okay, so we agree fully on this principle (I can't remember the last time that happened). But here is the thing. In physics it is obvious to me that there is some final truth. Things must be this way or that way, the particles must be here or there, we are dealing with the physical world. In the end, for the competent observer with the correct equipment, the observation can only have one outcome.
But in morality, how can you claim that objective morality exists? Based on what? It's not a physical reality as in physics. There is nothing to observe. It's a philosophical proposition.
But in morality, how can you claim that objective morality exists? Based on what? It's not a physical reality as in physics. There is nothing to observe. It's a philosophical proposition.
The fact that morality in general is more to do with philosophy rather than a tangible reality like physics does not at all imply that morality lacks objectivity. Perhaps it is not as easilly identifiable as that of a mathematical or physics equation, but that doesn't mean it doesn't exist.
