[Serie A] JUVENTUS 1-0 Roma [December 22nd, 2018] (1 Viewer)

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Mike-e-y

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2004
11,089
That ref was an absolute joke. His decisions throughout... even on re watch that VAR call was terrible.

Also why did the goal we scored with Chiellini not warrant a VAR intervention? No one even touched their keeper we just stood our ground
 

Alen

Ѕenior Аdmin
Apr 2, 2007
52,542
I don't know about that. Was it an incorrect call?
There was a similar situation before. Nzonzi fouls Dybala for what would have been his second yellow. Instead of simply falling, Dybala decided to make a pass to Ronaldo, who made a shot. The ref gave an advantage. Var wasn't used, but if it was and if the ref followed the same criteria he followed for Costa's disallowed goal, it was gonna be a red card for Nzonzi. Imo, it was correct not to use VAR since advantage was given.
It was the same here. If Matuidi won the ball and made the pass after making the foul (like Lichtsteiner did once in the past when we had a goal disallowed) then sure, use VAR and disallow the goal. But here the Roma player didn't fall and decided to go for an attacking pass (with his left foot, while being fouled on his right). He even continued running after the foul and before the pass. Advantage was clearly given and if the pass was successful, it might have been a goal for Roma.
 

Badass J Elkann

It's time to go!!
Feb 12, 2006
65,769
There was a similar situation before. Nzonzi fouls Dybala for what would have been his second yellow. Instead of simply falling, Dybala decided to make a pass to Ronaldo, who made a shot. The ref gave an advantage. Var wasn't used, but if it was and if the ref followed the same criteria he followed for Costa's disallowed goal, it was gonna be a red card for Nzonzi. Imo, it was correct not to use VAR since advantage was given.
It was the same here. If Matuidi won the ball and made the pass after making the foul (like Lichtsteiner did once in the past when we had a goal disallowed) then sure, use VAR and disallow the goal. But here the Roma player didn't fall and decided to go for an attacking pass (with his left foot, while being fouled on his right). He even continued running after the foul and before the pass. Advantage was clearly given and if the pass was successful, it might have been a goal for Roma.
Agreed. You know the first time to officiating any sport - Don't reward the team/player for bad skill. The 'foul' by matuidi did not cause the turn over in possession whilst it should also be deemed as a different phase of the play which should not have been considered by VAR
 

Buck Fuddy

Lara Chedraoui fanboy
May 22, 2009
10,641
Well the player gave the ball away, a turn over in possession that lead to the 2nd goal. Absurd and hugely flattering result for Roma. There wasn't even a foul on Olsen for the first disallowed goal
There was a similar situation before. Nzonzi fouls Dybala for what would have been his second yellow. Instead of simply falling, Dybala decided to make a pass to Ronaldo, who made a shot. The ref gave an advantage. Var wasn't used, but if it was and if the ref followed the same criteria he followed for Costa's disallowed goal, it was gonna be a red card for Nzonzi. Imo, it was correct not to use VAR since advantage was given.
It was the same here. If Matuidi won the ball and made the pass after making the foul (like Lichtsteiner did once in the past when we had a goal disallowed) then sure, use VAR and disallow the goal. But here the Roma player didn't fall and decided to go for an attacking pass (with his left foot, while being fouled on his right). He even continued running after the foul and before the pass. Advantage was clearly given and if the pass was successful, it might have been a goal for Roma.
Hmm, I get what you guys are saying, and it's not wrong, but VAR in combination with the advantage rule is always going to be tricky. Ref makes a decision based on what he knows or thinks he saw. But in the end it turns out he missed something, so our goal gets disallowed. If we hadn't converted this chance, the foul wouldn't have been called. That's just how it is, I guess. Fair enough.

I really don't see this as a wrong call, just a confusing one.
 

Post Ironic

Senior Member
Feb 9, 2013
41,850
Hmm, I get what you guys are saying, and it's not wrong, but VAR in combination with the advantage rule is always going to be tricky. Ref makes a decision based on what he knows or thinks he saw. But in the end it turns out he missed something, so our goal gets disallowed. If we hadn't converted this chance, the foul wouldn't have been called. That's just how it is, I guess. Fair enough.

I really don't see this as a wrong call, just a confusing one.
It's a wrong call imo, because VAR is supposed to be used for major incidents only. A ref can't even use VAR on yellow card incidents, so why can he rewind the clock 30 seconds before a goal, and decide he didn't play a good enough advantage.
 

Alen

Ѕenior Аdmin
Apr 2, 2007
52,542
Only one close was the Licht decision last year.

I don't get how the ref can check little decisions like that, that have next to nothing to do with the goal. I thought VAR was supposed to be used for only major incidents. I know they can't check yellows with it, so why they heck can they check nonsense like this.
Today we were punished for a good pass and they were rewarded for a bad one. If Dybala's pass to Ronaldo wasn't successful, that was gonna be a foul, free kick for us from an excellent position and most probably a second yellow for Nzonzi. As a matter of fact, if the ref decided for an advantage in that position, he could have still given the deserved yellow to Nzonzi. Players given yellow for a foul after the advantage is given, is something we see frequently.
 

Badass J Elkann

It's time to go!!
Feb 12, 2006
65,769
Hmm, I get what you guys are saying, and it's not wrong, but VAR in combination with the advantage rule is always going to be tricky. Ref makes a decision based on what he knows or thinks he saw. But in the end it turns out he missed something, so our goal gets disallowed. If we hadn't converted this chance, the foul wouldn't have been called. That's just how it is, I guess. Fair enough.

I really don't see this as a wrong call, just a confusing one.
The thing that I think we should bare in mind here is that the foul was not in the same phase of play as the play the attacking play to the goal as the roma player had already misplaced his pass, yet we still had to construct the attack to score. Var is not meant to rewind and correct a previous phase of play.
 

Boksic

Senior Member
May 11, 2005
13,395
So if one of our team gets clipped, carries on playing then misplaces a pass and the other team score, the goal will be revoked. Good to know.
 

Buck Fuddy

Lara Chedraoui fanboy
May 22, 2009
10,641
It's a wrong call imo, because VAR is supposed to be used for major incidents only. A ref can't even use VAR on yellow card incidents, so why can he rewind the clock 30 seconds before a goal, and decide he didn't play a good enough advantage.
I don't know. Isn't a goal considered a major incident?

As in, the goal happened, now let's look back & verify whether or not something incorrect happened?
 

Post Ironic

Senior Member
Feb 9, 2013
41,850
I don't know. Isn't a goal considered a major incident?

As in, the goal happened, now let's look back & verify whether or not something incorrect happened?
Then how far back do we rewind. If there had been no stoppages in play, do you comb over the last 5 minutes to determine if a foul had been made somewhere in there that might have changed the course of those 5 minutes?
 

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