"Sanchez was available from Barcelona for €30 million for several weeks before the World Cup. The Chilean was happy to accept an annual salary of €4m (an increase on his Barca wages and less than what Carlos Tevez is earning) and had made it very clear that his preferred destination was Turin to join up with his national colleagues Arturo Vidal and Mauricio Isla."
http://www.goal.com/en/news/1717/ed...resign-given-juventus-abysmal-transfer-market
and if you read up the relevant threads leading up to the world cup, there were stories of how Juve made bids of as low as 8 mill, yet they will go full out on Iturbe?
http://www.goal.com/en/news/1717/ed...resign-given-juventus-abysmal-transfer-market
and if you read up the relevant threads leading up to the world cup, there were stories of how Juve made bids of as low as 8 mill, yet they will go full out on Iturbe?
And you are using an article stating as to how much the Juve transfer market has been a failure even thought they have yet to make a significant move. From a goal.com op-ed piece, no less.
And again, you did not answer my question. IF Sanchez really were available for 30 million prior to the world cup, why didn't Arsenal step up back then?
Why, because they WANTED to pay 12.5 million above asking price?
Really??
