++ [ originally posted by HWIENIAWSKI ] ++
I agree with most of what you said, Zambrota19. @ Gandalf- I know what Jihad means
however, when you look at the world today, you see that there are people that understand Jihad to mean aggressive and forceful proselytization. unfortunately, it seems that there are as many Muslims that misunderstand Jihad as non-believers. so enough with the caps lock both of you-I'm not suggesting that Jihad is coercion. I was merely mentioning possible beliefs.
I agree with most of what you said, Zambrota19. @ Gandalf- I know what Jihad means

@ Zambrota19
could you explain how the Palestinian-Israeli conflict has given ]alestinians a legitimate reason for Jihad?
second: I'm quoting you "first emisarries were sent to neighbouring contries with a message for their ruler to convert to islam, if they obliged then thats that. but if they didnt, an army would be sent to that country, demanding three things in order:
1-submit to islam
2-if not then, submit to the islamic country, and you will be free to practice ur religion as you wish, and will not be coerced to islam.
3- if not then, it is war"
how is that not coercion?? say the non-Islamic country in question wanted to remain independent. they would then face a war that they had neither precipitated or encouraged, yet was being forced upon them. what if the situation was reversed? the Islamic country is forced in to a war-wouldn't the fight to defend the Islamic country be called a just Jihad against infidel invaders? in otherwords, isn't the aggressor nation in the wrong? if so, then obviously if roles were reversed, the Islamic nation would be the aggressor. therefore, if that is how you define Jihad, then your arguments do not match. afterall, it is illogical to think that two countries in the situation I described could BOTH have legitimate reason for Jihad against each other.
could you explain how the Palestinian-Israeli conflict has given ]alestinians a legitimate reason for Jihad?
second: I'm quoting you "first emisarries were sent to neighbouring contries with a message for their ruler to convert to islam, if they obliged then thats that. but if they didnt, an army would be sent to that country, demanding three things in order:
1-submit to islam
2-if not then, submit to the islamic country, and you will be free to practice ur religion as you wish, and will not be coerced to islam.
3- if not then, it is war"
how is that not coercion?? say the non-Islamic country in question wanted to remain independent. they would then face a war that they had neither precipitated or encouraged, yet was being forced upon them. what if the situation was reversed? the Islamic country is forced in to a war-wouldn't the fight to defend the Islamic country be called a just Jihad against infidel invaders? in otherwords, isn't the aggressor nation in the wrong? if so, then obviously if roles were reversed, the Islamic nation would be the aggressor. therefore, if that is how you define Jihad, then your arguments do not match. afterall, it is illogical to think that two countries in the situation I described could BOTH have legitimate reason for Jihad against each other.
Second: Ok sorry I might of not added that the conditions of 2 also apply to 3. meaning, it is war and you will ALSO be free to practice ur religion as you wish, and will not be coerced to islam. So as you see their is no proselytization or coersion going on here. I would like also like to remind you that non-islamic neighbouring countries at that time were actually not countries but were Empires. (Roman and Persian empires, correct me if I am wrong cuz these names are just translations from arabic, I dont know the english names of these empires). I would not think that these empires submit to islam coercivly just to keep their Independance. True that war might be coerced onto them, but once the Muslims won the war, there was no coersion on the public to convert. It is pointless to coerce someone to another religion. Coersion to Islam will eventually create an army of hypocrits, showing Islam and conspiring againts it secretly. It is actually not wise to coerse, and Muslims at that time knew that and did what they were commanded to do from Allah (look at Gandalf's post).
I would like to tell you also that Jihad is a word assocciated with Muslims only. I mean in the case of Britain invading France, Britain is not engaging in Jihad and France is not also! so there BOTH could not have a legitamite reason for Jehad.
